Pretest on TOEFL

Section1: Listening Comprehension

In this section, you will demonstrate your skills in understanding spoken English. There are three parts in the Listening Comprehension, with different tasks in each.

Part A
DIRECTIONS: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a third speaker will ask a question about what the first two speakers said. Each conversation and each question will be spoken only one time. Therefore, you must listen carefully to understand what each speaker says. After you hear a conversation and the question, read the four choices and select the one that is the best answer to the question the speaker asked. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and blacken the space that corresponds to the letter for the answer you have chosen. Blacken the space completely so that the letter inside the space does not show.

Listen to the following example.
Sample Answer: D
On the recording, you hear:
(Man) Does the car need to be filled?
(Woman) Mary stopped at the gas station on her way home.
(Narrator) What does the woman mean?

In your test book, you will read:
(A) Mary bought some food.
(B) Mary had car trouble.
(C) Mary went shopping.
(D) Mary bought some gas.

From the conversation you learn that Mary stopped at the gas station on her way home. The best answer to the question "Does the car need to be filled?" is (D), "Mary bought some gas.” Therefore, the correct answer is (D).

Now let us begin Part A with question number 1.


1.
(A) Peter didn't pay Bill two times.
(B) Peter didn't pay the phone company.
(C) Peter is the second in line to pay.
(D) Peter forgot to call Bill.

2.
(A) The course is closed for registration.
(B) The instructor decides who can enroll.
(C) Registration for this course is permitted.
(D) The instructor doesn't give students permission.

3.
(A) We expected only fourteen people to come.
(B) Forty people came to work in the shop.
(C) More people came than had been acted.
(D) We expanded the shop to include forty people.

4.
(A) It’s better to change this job.
(B) Betty decided to take the job.
(C) In my opinion, Betty should change her.
(D) I thought Betty was taking John with her.

5.
(A) If she dropped Jack off.
(B) If she took his jacket to be cleaned.
(C) If she was leaving Jack.
(D) If she had cleaned his jacket yet.

6.
(A) The teachers didn't go to the meeting.
(B) The meeting on Wednesday was crowded.
(C) The teachers knew about the meeting.
(D) Everyone forgot about the meeting.

7.
(A) He was nice to give up his part.
(B) He gave a party for the man.
(C) He was kind to do his part.
(D) He was kind to come to the party.

8.
(A) Pharmacists shouldn't carry boxes to the station.
(B) Paper goods are not usually sold in drug stores.
(C) Mobile pharmacies are not stationed here.
(D) The pharmacy needs to order paper goods.

9.
(A) The exam seems to be easier than it first appeared.
(B) He thinks the exam appears to cover the material.
(C) He thinks they made the exam difficult on purpose.
(D) The exam is more difficult than he thought.

10.
(A) The number of the unemployed has been increasing.
(B) Drama clubs have been helping the unemployed.
(C) Unemployed actors can find work in drama.
(D) Dramas about the unemployed are gaining popularity.

11.
(A) Linda's grades don't leave much room for improvement.
(B) Linda deserves better grades in her courses.
(C) Linda's grades aren't as high as they should be.
(D) Linda's grades should be left alone.

12.
(A) She had to add salt to her hamburger.
(B) She had a hamburger at 1:30.
(C) She needs something to drink.
(D) Her hamburger was excellent.

13.
(A) They dropped her sandwich.
(B) She didn't have food on her mind.
(C) They will bring her a sandwich.
(A) (D)She should be on her way home.

14.
(A) Doug is too old to go on a boat.
(B) Ducks can't be transported by boat.
(C) Doug doesn't like to vote.
(B) Doug is too young to vote.

15.
(A) Harry is working to buy new shoes.
(B) Harry's shoes are at school.
(C) Harry is a student.
(D) Harry walks to the seashore.

16.
(A) There is no room on the third floor.
(B) Room 7 is ready for the third meeting.
(C) The room is on a different floor.
(D) The floor in this room is dirty.

17.
(A) After he broke a glass, he had to use cup.
(B) After the flat, he's been using a spare tire.
(C) When he broke the glass, he cut himself.
(D) He has been using different glasses

18.
(A) My brother had an idea for our father’s gift.
(B) My brother wants to buy our father a pool.
(C) We wanted to bake a pie for our father.
(D) We celebrated our father’s birthday.

19.
(A) Ann will be 21 next month.
(B) No one now lives next to Ann.
(C) Ann moved here three weeks ago.
(D) Ann is going on a 21-day vacation.

20.
(A) If he could sell her a product to remove grease.
(B) If he knew he had a stain.
(C) If he wanted to remove his shirt.
(D) If she had a crease in her shirt.

21.
(A) She approves.
(B) He is good at tennis.
(C) He was nice to clean the house.
(D) She wants to come, too.

22.
(A) He is going out of town.
(B) He is expecting guests.
(C) He is changing companies.
(D) He is moving to another town.

23.
(A) At an amusement park.
(B) In a restaurant.
(C) On the sidewalk.
(D) Near a parking meter.

24.
(A) Buying vegetables.
(B) Planting a garden.
(C) Cooking a meal.
(D) Loading a truck.

25.
(A) Can you hear this noise?
(B) Do you know this sound?
(C) Where would you prefer?
(D) Where is this sound coming from?
26.
(A) At a craft show
(B) At a bookstore
(C) At a hardware store
(D) At a video rental shop

27.
(A) A gas station attendant
(B) A university course grader
(C) An income tax accountant
(D) A technical team leader

28.
(A) She is upset that she forgot to send the card.
(B) She thinks the man should share responsibility.
(C) She has been forgetting a lot of things lately.
(D) She is asking whether the man sent his own card.

29
(A) Go for dinner
(B) Order Italian food
(C) Mail her report
(D) Finish her report

30.
(A) She believes her services should be noticed.
(B) She is taking a two-week leave.
(C) She was promoted to the position of a manager.
(D) She is planning to take another job.



Part B
DIRECTTONS: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four choices in your test book and select the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.
Listen to the following example:
You will hear:
You will read:
(A) He has changed jobs. Sample Answer: C
(B) He has two children.
(C) He has two jobs.
(D) He is looking for a job.

From the conversation you learn that Tom has taken an additional job. The best answer to the question "Why is Tom tired?" is (C), "He has two jobs." Therefore, the correct answer is C

31.
(A) In a film studio
(B) In a record company
(C) At an art gallery
(D) At a movie theater

32.
(A) He thinks his children should watch educational programs.
(B) His daughters are too old to watch cartoons.
(C) He isn't a child any longer.
(D) He doesn't want to watch cartoons.

33.
(A) The drawings are made.
(B) The story is created.
(C) The shots are framed.
(D) The artists are organized.
34.
(A) To make cartoons a form of graphic art
(B) To enhance the visual and auditory elements
(C) To add action to animation
(D) To speed up the feature plot

35.
(A) At a county fair
(B) In the woods
(C) On a sidewalk
(D)On a playground

36.
(A) In the evening
(B) In the morning
(C) In the fall
(D) In the spring

37.
(A) They shed their leaves in the fall.
(B) There are fewer daylight hours.
(C) Young trees require a blanket.
(D) Red and yellow are prettier that green.

38.
(A) She doesn't care about his exph
(B) She doesn't understand scientific
(C) She doesn't believe the man.
(D)She doesn't like autumn.


Part C
Directions: In Part C you will hear short lectures and conversations. At the end of each, you will be asked several questions. Each lecture or conversation and each question will be spoken only one time. For this reason, you must listen carefully to understand what each speaker says. After you hear a question, read the four possible choices and select the one that best answers the question the speaker asked. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and blacken the space that corresponds to the letter for the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions according to what is stated or implied in the lecture or conversation.
Listen to this sample talk.
You will hear:
Now listen to the following example.
You will hear: Sample Answer: B
You will read:
(A) By cars and carriages
(B) By bicycles, trains, and carriages
(C) On foot and by boat
(D) On board ships and trains
The best answer to the question "According to the speaker, how did people travel before the invention of the automobile?" is (B), "By bicycles, trains, and carriages." Therefore, the cor¬rect answer is (B).
Now listen to another sample question.
(Narrator): Approximately how many people are employed in the automobile service industry?

You will read:
(A) One million Sample Answer: C
(B) Ten million
(C) Twelve million
(D) Ninety million
The best answer to the question "Approximately how many people are employed in the automobile service industry?" is (C), "Twelve million." Therefore, the correct answer is (C).
You are not allowed to make notes during the test.


39.
(A) It changes climatic conditions.
(B) It controls the indoor environment.
(C) It circulates water particles in the air.
(D) It reduces overhead expenditures.

40.
(A) By cleaning off dirt and dust
(B) By modifying the temperature
(C) By removing and adding moisture
(D) By bringing in and taking out air

41.
(A) To replace it with fresh air
(B) To create a breeze
(C) To retard heat conduction
(D) To remove local moisture

42.
(A) Hardly ever in cold regions
(B) Exclusively in business settings
(C) Basically as it does in summer
(D) Mainly as needed for repairs

43.
(A) They can dress comfortably.
(B) They become tired.
(C) They feel alert.
(D) They stay healthy.

44.
(A) Business and finance
(B) Law and science
(C) Sports
(D) Chief editors

45.
(A) Copy editing
(B) Approaching people
(C) Writing
(D) Typing

46.
(A) Many reports have been filed.
(B) Many reporters have been laid off.
(C) Many publications have closed.
(D) Many are hiring new specialists.

47.
(A) They will stay sluggish.
(B) They may continue to decrease.
(C) They are likely to expand.
(D) They may be difficult to break into.

48.
(A) It represents an essential supply of water.
(B) Its sources can be renewed indefinitely
(C) It always provides a usable source water.
(D) Its development is important in the United States.

49.
(A) Increased rain and agricultural irrig
(B) Increased use and contamination
(C) Airborne bacteria and atmospheric oxygen
(D) Surface runoff and turbulence

50.
(A) Several years
(B) Centuries
(C) Dozens of years
(D) Thousands of years

>STOP< This is the end of Section 1. Read the directions for Section 2 Do not read or work on any other section of the test. Look at the time now before you begin work on Section 2. Use exactly 25 minutes to work on Section 2. Section 2:Structure and Written Expression Time: 25 minutes This section is designed to test your ability to recognize language structures that are appropri¬ate in standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, and each s special directions. DIRECTIONS: Questions 1-15 are partial sentences. Below each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Select the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question you have selected. Blacken the space so that the letter inside the circle does not show. EXAMPLE I Sample Answer: A Drying flowers is the best way them. (A) to preserve (B) by preserving (C) preserve (D) preserved The sentence should state, "Drying flowers is the best way to preserve them." Therefore, the correct answer is (A). EXAMPLE II Sample Answer: C Many American universities as small, private colleges. (A) begun (B) beginning (C) began (D) for the beginning The sentence should state, "Many American universities began as small, private colleges." Therefore, the correct answer is (C). After you read the directions, begin work on the questions. l. The upper branches of the tallest trees produce more leaves -------other branches. (A) than do (B) than does (C) than they do (D) than it does 2. No one -----------projections of demographic shifts are reliable and will prove to be valid in the future. (A) know how (B) knows whether (C) knows even (D) know who 3. Senior executives often receive bonuses when their profit targets are reached or--------- (A) surpass (B) surpasses (C) surpassed (D) surpassing 4. Since the 1970s, riding bicycles in the United. States. (A) becomes increasingly widespread (B) become increasingly widely spread (C) has become increasingly widespread (D) has increased and becomes spread widely 5. Horseradish has extended stems and a large root that is grated a spicy food sauce. (A) to making (B) to make (C) to be made (D) to the making 6. Vitamin A maintains the sharpness of human vision and promotes healthy bones. (A) at night (B) of the night (C) for the night (D) nighttime 7. , often used in children's poetry and rhymes, are a result of words used in ambiguous contexts. (A) Humorous and misunderstood (B) Misunderstand humorously (C) Humorous misunderstandings (D) Misunderstanding its humor 8. Modern scanning technology enables physicians to identify brain disorder earlier than in the past. (A) and more accurate (B) and more accurately (C) accurate and more (D) accurately and more 9. Educational toys and games give children an opportunity to enjoy themselves--------------. (A) while their learning (B) while learning (C) are they learning (D) and they are learning 10. William Hazlitt's essays, written in ----------- style, appeared between 1821 and 1822. (A) vigorously and informally (B) vigorous and informally (C) vigor and informality (D) vigorous and informal 11. Wild hogs inhabited Europe and other parts of the world 6 million years ago. (A) as long (B) as long as (C) then it was (D) than it was 12. Electrically charged particles exert a magnetic force on one another even -------- not in physical contact. (A) if there are (B) they are (C) if they are (D) are they 13. F. Scott Fitzgerald's early literary success led to extravagant living and ---------- a large income. (A) a need for (B) to need for (C) needed for (D) for he needed 14. Water fire extinguishers must never be used for fires that involve--------- (A) electrically equipped (B) equipment, electrically (C) electricity equipped (D) electrical equipment 15. By the 1300s, the Spanish had learned that gunpowder could -------- propel an object with incredible force. (A) use to (B) be used to (C) been used to (D) using it to DIRECTIONS: In questions 16-40 every sentence has four words or phrases that are underlined. The four underlined portions of each sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one word or phrase that should be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and blacken the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have selected. EXAMPLE I Sample Answer: A Christopher Columbus has sailed from Europe in 1492 and discovered a new land he thought to be India. A B C The sentence should state, "Christopher Columbus sailed from Europe in 1492 and discovered a new land he thought to be India." Therefore, you should choose answer (A) EXAMPLE II Sample Answer: B As the roles of people in society change, so does the rules of conduct in certain situation A B C D The sentence should state, "As the roles of people in society change, so do the rules of conduct in certain situations." Therefore, you should choose answer (B). After you read the directions, begin work on the questions. 16. During a recession, manufacturers may be forced to decrease the number of their workers to reduction A B C their expenditures. D 17. Tides constitute a change in the level of water in the oceans and are caused by the gravitational interaction A B C between heavenly body. D 18. Most people are surprising to see how rapidly bacteria can multiply under favorable conditions. A B C D 19. Without water, food, shelter, and clothing, person could not survive a prolonged exposure to A B C the elements. D 20. Ancestor worship reflects a family's reverence for the advice and guidance of its died members. A B C D 21. A little land animals live in the polar regions which are covered with snow year round. A B C D 22. A dolphin, often called a "porpoise," is considered to be one of the bright among animals. A B C D 23. In Arizona, regular annually events include horse shows, art fairs, and folk dances. A B C D 24. Artificial intelligence is concerned with designing computer systems that perform such tasks as A B reason and learning new skills. C D 25. Saccharin, made from toluene, is about 350 times as sweeter as sugar. A B C D 26. Work affect intellectual development and personal characteristics, and personality and life A B C events affect work. D 27. Because of attitudes shape behavior, psychologists want to find out how opinions are formed. A B C D 28. Although Connecticut occupies a small area, its weather can vary from one area to others. A B C D 29. The Great Depression serves as an example of drama fluctuations in the balanced wage rate. A B C D 30. In some states, it has against the law to ride a motorcycle without a helmet. A B C D 31. The government provides financial support for people who are unable to support themself. A B C D 32. Robert Merton studied how does society influences the development, of science. A B C D 33. The available of credit influences the rate of economic growth and the increase in prices. A B C D 34. Pasteurization is the process of heating milk to destroy disease-caused organisms and bacteria. A B C D 35. Paul Claudel, who written books about his personal feelings, was a lea ding French author of the A B C D early 1900s. 36. Astronomers do not have sufficient information to determine what the solar system A B C was created. D 37. The soil and climate in the tropics are not suit to produce large quantities of grain. A B C D 38. Some species of bats are dormant each days and active every night. A B C D 39. Paper was so expensive during the Middle Ages that it has to be used sparingly. A B C D 40. Additives are chemicals, that are infused into substances to preventing them from spoil A B C D >STOP< This is the end of Section 2. Read the directions for Section 3. Do not read or work on any other section of the test. Look at the time now before you begin work on Section 3. Use exactly 55 minutes to work on Section 3. Section 3: Reading Comprehension Time: 55 minutes DIRECTIONS: In this section you will read several passages. Each is followed by questions about it. For questions 1-50, you need to select the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each ques¬tion. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and blacken the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have selected. Fill in the space completely. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Read the following passage: A tomahawk is a small ax used as a tool and a weapon by the North American Indian tribes. An average tomahawk was not very long and did not weigh a great deal. Originally, the head of the tomahawk was made of a shaped stone or an animal bone and was mounted on a wooden handle. After the arrival of the European settlers, the Indians began to use toma¬hawks with iron heads. Indian males and females of all ages used tomahawks to chop and cut wood, pound stakes into the ground to put up wigwams, and perform many other chores. Indian warriors relied on tomahawks as weapons and even threw them at their enemies. Some types of tomahawks were used in religious ceremonies. Contemporary American idioms reflect this aspect of American heritage. EXAMPLE I Sample Answer: A Early tomahawk heads were made of (A) stone or bone (B) wood or sticks (C) European iron (D) religious weapons According to the passage, early tomahawk heads were made of stone or bone. Therefore, the correct answer is (A). EXAMPLE II Sample Answer: C How has the Indian use of tomahawks affected American daily life today? (A) Tomahawks are still used as weapons. (B) Tomahawks are used as tools for certain jobs. (C) Contemporary language refers to tomahawks. (D) Indian tribes cherish tomahawks as heirlooms. The passage states, "Contemporary American idioms reflect this aspect of American her¬" The correct answer is (C). After you read the directions, begin work on the questions. Questions 1-10 The Globe Theater, where most of Shakespeare's plays were staged and performed was located in London. Cuthbert and Richard Burbage built the theater in 1599 with material left over from the construction of London's first playhouse, the Theater. They constructed Line the Globe on the south side of the Thames River in the little town of Southwark and counted (5) on making the theater a draw for the locals. Little is known about the architectural design of the theater except what can be deduced from maps and the layout of the plays presented there. It appears that the Globe was either round or polygonal on the outside but most likely round on the inside. In keeping with the contemporary imitations of Roman government buildings, its roof was most probably shaped as a crude dome. It can be further deduced that (10) the structure was decorated with pediments, arches, columns, and ornate staircases with carvings of shells, feathers, and cupids. The size of its audience is projected at as many as 3,000 spectators both in the amphitheater and in the balcony. The Globe burned down in 1613; it was rebuilt on the same foundation a year later, but its external walls were curved at an angle different from that of the original. The theater was built hastily, and evidently (15) safety was not a top priority for either-the engineer or the company. After several nearly fatal accidents, the Globe was tom down for good in 1644. 1. This passage most likely came from a longer work on (A) English deductive trivia (B) English monumental constructions (C) the history of the English theater (D) notable English disasters 2. According to the passage, the Globe Theater was built (A) from available contemporary materials (B) from materials remaining from another project (C) on a foundation designed to meet a temporary need (D) with ornaments intended to fool the spectators 3. In line 5, the phrase "a draw" is closest in meaning to (A) an option (B) an attraction (C) a drawing (D) a donation 4. It can be inferred from the passage the Globe's exact architectural design (A) should be reconstituted (B) should be obliterated (C) cannot be determined (D) cannot be disregarded 5. In line 8, the word "imitations" is in meaning to (A) enumeration (B) elimination (C) elaborations (D) emulation 6. In line 11, the word "projected" i in meaning to (A) calculated (B) confirmed (C) embellished (D) entrenched 7. The passage suggests that, for its time, the Globe Theater was (A) humble (B) harsh (C) austere (D) large 8. According to the passage, in how many buildings was the Globe Theater housed during its operation? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four 9. The author implies that the last building housing the Globe was (A) dignified (B) unmistakable (C) hazardous (D) haunted 10. With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree? (A) The architectural design of the theater was exemplary in the 1600s. (B) The builders did not invest a great deal of thought into the theater design. (C) The theater audience enjoyed plays, as well as the building design. (D) The theater location contributed to the opulence of its design and decorations. Questions 11-22 Vitamins, taken in tiny doses, ate a major group of organic compounds that regulate the mechanisms by which the body converts food into energy. They should not be confused with minerals, which are inorganic in their makeup. Although in general the naming of vi- Line tamins followed the alphabetical order of their identification, the nomenclature of individ- (5) ual substances may appear to be somewhat random and disorganized. Among the 13 vitamins known today, five are produced in the body. Because the body produces sufficient quantities of some but not all vitamins, they must be supplemented in the daily diet. Although each vitamin has its specific designation and cannot be replaced by another, compound, a lack of one vitamin can interfere with the processing of another. When a lack of (10) even one vitamin in a diet is continual, a vitamin deficiency may result. The best way for an individual to ensure a necessary supply of vitamins is to maintain a balanced diet that includes a variety of foods and provides adequate quantities of all the com-pounds. Some people take vitamin supplements, predominantly in the form of tablet. The vitamins in such supplements are equivalent to those in food, but an adult who maintain a (15) balanced diet does not need a daily supplement. The ingestion of supplements is recom- mended only to correct an existing deficiency due to unbalanced diet, to provide vitamins known to be lacking in a restricted diet, or to act as a therapeutic measure in medical treat- ment. Specifically, caution must be exercised with fat-soluble substances, such as vitamins A and D, because, taken in gigantic doses, they may present a serious health hazard over a pe- (20) riod of time. 11. In line 1, the word "regulate" is closest in meaning to (A) control (B) refine (C) refresh (D) confine 12. According to the passage, vitamins are (A) food particles (B) essential nutrients (C) miscellaneous substances (D) major food groups 13. In line 4, the word "nomenclature" is closest in meaning to (A) conservation (B) classification (C) concentration (D) clarification 14. How many vitamins must be derived from nourishment? (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 13 15. The author implies that foods (A) supply some but not all necessary vitamins (B) should be fortified with all vita (C) are equivalent in vitamin content (D) supplement some but not all necessary vitamins 16. In line 7, the phrase "daily diet" is in meaning to (A) weight loss or gain (B) sufficient quantities (C) nourishment intake (D) vitamin tablets 17. A continual lack of one vitamin in person's diet is (A) contagious (B) desirable (C) preposterous (D) dangerous 18. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? (A) A varied diet needs to be supplemented with vitamins. (B) An inclusive diet can provide all necessary vitamins. (C) Vitamins cannot be consistently obtained from food. (D) Vitamins should come from capsules in purified form. 19. It can be inferred from the passage that vitamin supplements can be advisable (A) in special medical cases (B) in most restricted diets (C) after correcting a dietary deficiency (D) before beginning a therapeutic treatment 20. In line 17, the phrase "act as" is closest meaning to (A) play the role of (B) pretend to be (C) fight for (D) attest to the fact that 21. The author of the passage implies that (A) some vitamins are not fat-soluble (B) vitamins can be taken in very small doses (C) most vitamins are water-soluble (D) all vitamins are found in measured doses 22. What does the passage mainly discuss? (B) Adopting vitamins to control weight (C) The individual's diet for optimum health (D) Vitamin categorization and medical application (E) The place of vitamins in nutrition Questions 23-33 When jazz began to lose its reputation as "low-down" music and to gain well-deserved acclaim among intellectuals, musicians began to feature many instruments previously considered inappropriate for jazz. Whereas before the 1950s, jazz musicians played only eight ba- Line sic instruments in strict tempo, in this decade they started to improvise on the flute, electric (5) organ, piccolo, accordion, cello, and even bagpipes, with the rhythm section composed for strings or piano. Big bands no longer dominated jazz, and most changes emerged from small combos, such as the Dave Brubeck Quartet and the Gerry Mulligan Quartet. The Gerry Mulligan Quartet proved that a small, modern band could sound complete without a piano; the rhythm section consisted only of a set of drums and a string bass. (10) Jazz continued to move in new directions during the 1960s. Saxophonist and composer Ornette Coleman led a quartet playing "free" jazz that was atonal. Pianist Cecil Taylor also conducted similar experiments with music, and John Coltrane included melodies from India in his compositions. In the 1970s musicians blended jazz and rock music into fusion jazz which combined the melodies and the improvisations of jazz with the rhythmic qualities of (15) rock 'n' roll, with three or five beats to the bar and in other meters. The form of jazz music was greatly affected by electric instruments and electronic implements to intensify, distort, or amplify their sounds. However, the younger musicians of the time felt compelled to include a steady, swinging rhythm which they saw as a permanent and essential element in great jazz. 23. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage? (A) Popular Beats in Classical and Modern Jazz (B) Quintessential Moments in Jazz Music (C) The Achievements of Famous Jazz Musicians (D) (D)The Rising Prestige and Diversity of Jazz 24. In line 2, the word "feature" is closest in meaning to (A) profess (B) prohibit (C) protest (D) promote 25. The paragraph preceding this passage would most likely describe (A) instruments used in jazz (B) instrumental pieces in jazz (C) jazz in the 1940s (D) the origins of jazz 26. The author of the passage implies the 1950s, jazz musicians (A) strictly adhered to its tradition compositions (B) probably continued with its to and instrumentation (C) experimented with rhythm an instruments (D) increased the tempo to keep the changes 27. The author of the passage mention all of the following EXCEPT (A) bagpipes (B) percussion (C) string bass (D) harpsichord 28. It can be inferred from the passage that mall jazz bands (A) were dominated by large orchestras (B) consisted of drums and a string bass (C) were innovative in their music (D) included modern sound systems 29. The author believes that the developments in jazz described in the passage (A) should be seen as precocious (B) should be considered influential (C) appear largely suggestive (D) may be perceived as discrete 30. The passage implies that representative jazz musicians (A) concentrated on melodious combinations of sounds (B) blended improvisations and sheet music together (C) created and modernized sophisticated devices (D) sought novel techniques in form and content 31. According to the passage, the changes in jazz music in the 1970s came from (A) another harmonious scale (B) another musical trend (C) ambitious aspirations (D) sound amplifications 32. In line 17, the word "compelled" is closest in meaning to (A) forced (B) challenged (C) obligated (D) censored 33. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage? (A) Chronological innovations in jazz music (B) Definitions of diverse jazz styles (C) A classification of prominent jazz musicians (D) Descriptions and examples to illustrate jazz rhythms Questions 34-41 The killdeer is a commonly found shore bird that inhabits the area between southern Canada and South America. As with all plovers, its soft contour feathers with barbs and barbules impart a sleek appearance to its body while its down feathers insulate it from the winter cold Line and the summer heat. The male's loud shrill, which seems to say kill-deer, warns other males (5) away from his territory. Ornithologists do not consider the killdeer a true songbird because its throat muscles are not structured to make melodious notes. Killdeers are distinguished by the two black bands that mark their chest and neck. Camouflaged by their protective grayish brown pigment, killdeers build nests that cradle the eggs and the young in shallow depressions in fields and open meadows. Because their (10) nests lie directly on the ground, the young are able to run about as soon as they hatch. Killdeer are incubatory creatures and brood their own babies. When a predator approaches the nest or the bird's young, the mother tries to distract the intruder by dragging one of her wings as if it were injured. Farmers are particularly fond of killdeers because they feed on insects that damage crops. Because whole flocks of killdeers in the wild have vanished due to (15) overhunting, game laws have been enacted to protect these plovers from poaching. 34. It can be inferred from the passage that killdeer usually live (A) in the brush (B) in mountains (C) near oceans (D) near cities 35. In line 3, the word "impart" is closest in meaning to (A) give (B) import (C) link (D) imprint 36. What is the reason given for the bird's name? (A) It has distinctive bands. (B) It has a peculiar song. (C) It kills young deer. (D) It eats deer fodder. 37. In line 6, the word "melodious" is closest in meaning to (A) memorable (B) musical (C) mellow (D) marvelous 38. It can be inferred from the passage killdeers are (A) inarticulate (B) inconspicuous (C) irreverent (D) irresolute 39. How does the mother bird mislead its enemies? (A) By pretending to be vulnerable (B) By blending in with the back (C) By building low-lying nests (D) By scaring them away with her cry 40. According to the passage, farmer (A) form foundations to protect 1 (B) appreciate the effects of killdeers (C) camouflage killdeer nests and eggs (D) provide killdeers with food and insects 41. Which of the following best des4 author's attitude toward the killdeers? (A) Menacing (B) Warm (C) Detached (D) Humorous Questions 42-50 In 1752, Benjamin Franklin made his textbook experiment with a brass key and a silk kite that he flew in a thunderstorm to prove that lightning and electricity are the same thing. In 1920, a kite-flying championship for families and individuals was held in London. Line These two seemingly unrelated events underscore the fact that kites can be flown for both (5) pleasure and scientific purposes. For example, in the 1800s weather bureaus flew kites to re¬cord temperature and humidity at certain altitudes. On one occasion, ten kites were strung together and flown at a height of four miles to lift men and carry cameras aloft. The kite's ability to fly depends on its construction and the way that its line is attached. The familiar diamond-shaped kite flies when its covered face is aligned against the wind (10) flow. The line attached to the nose of the kite pulls it into the wind, thus creating the neces-sary angle for the lift force. If the kite's construction and the angle of the air stream are cor-rect, the kite will encounter greater pressure against its face and lower pressure against its back. The difference in the pressure creates a lift that causes the kite to rise until it hangs level from its bridle. Its angle against the wind should be sufficiently large or small to create (15) maximum lift to overcome both drag and gravity. The towing point to which the line is at-tached is important because it sets the kite's angle relative to the air flow. Although the kite must be headed up and into the wind with a velocity of 8 to 20 miles per hour, it can main-tain its position through a tail, a rudder, a keel, vents, or tassels. 42. What is the main topic of the passage? (A) How kites can be utilized (B) Why kites were spurned (C) What parts kites consist of (D) What makes kites stay aloft 43. In line 1, the word "textbook" is closest in meaning to (A) textual (B) tentative (C) classic (D) outrageous 44. In line 4, the word "seemingly" is closest in meaning to (A) ostensibly (B) oncoming (C) optimistic (D) opposite 45. In line 7, the word "aloft" is closest in meaning to (A) in flight (B) in the flood (C) for the analysis (D) for amusement 46. According to the passage, the kite flies when its nose is (A) pointed away from the ground (B) pointed into the wind flow (C) balanced with the tail (D) aligned parallel to the wind flow 47. What is the necessary condition for the kite to fly? (A) The kite must be sufficiently strong to withstand great pressure. (B) The kite must be diamond-shaped, and the wind of a certain velocity. (C) The pressure against its back must be lower than the pressure against its face. (D) The pressure of the air flow must be lower than the weight of the kite. 48. According to the passage, the line of the kite is important because it (A) lifts the kite's cover and frame into the air space (B) contributes to the shape of the kite and extends it (C) determines the angle between the kite and the air flow (D) conveys the direction of the wind and the air flow 49. In line 17, the phrase "headed up" is closest in meaning to (A) diverted (B) deviated (C) directed (D) drafted 50. The paragraph following the passage most would likely discuss (A) fiberglass kites flown in competitions (B) the cords and wires needed fork flying (C) bowed kites curved on their face (D) elements of kite design and composition >STOP<
This is the end of the test